Compare neoclassical with classical, Marxian OR post-Keynesian price/ value theory. How do they differ? Which do you think gives the most satisfactory vision,
and why?

Order Description
These are some sources, please be consistent with citation. Was told that citation is separate word count but included for free so 1650 words of content please
Required:
M.C. Howard and J.E. King (1985) ‘The theory of value’, from The
Political Economy of Marx, 2ed. (New York: New York University Press),
pp. 91-107.
Yanis Varoufakis (1998) ‘Textbooks on consumer and choice theory’,
from Foundations of Economics: a beginner’s companion (London:
Routledge), pp. 43-75

* Lavoie 2, pp. 25-32. (Download: opac.library.usyd.edu.au/
record=b3784374~S4)
* Duncan Foley (2008) ‘The long-period method and Marx’s theory of
value’, https://havenscenter.org/files/foley.marx.lp.method.pdf
P. Garegnani (1984) ‘Value and distribution in the classical economists
and Marx’, Oxford Economic Papers, 36:2, pp. 291-325.
Isaak Rubin (1972) Essays on Marx’s Theory of Value, esp. Chapters 2, 8,
17-18, https://www.marxists.org/archive/rubin/value/
Paul Sweezy (1968) ‘The transformation of values into prices’, in The
Theory of Capitalist Development (New York: Monthly Review Press), pp.
109-32.
Frank Stilwell (2012) ‘Free-market economics’ and ‘Consumers’, in
Political Economy: the contest of economic ideas, 3 ed. (Melbourne: Oxford
University Press), pp. 150-70.

Hal Varian’s Intermediate Microeconomics: a modern approach, 9 ed. (New
York: W.W. Norton & Co.).
Marc Lavoie (2014) ‘Theory of choice’, from Post-Keynesian Economics
(Cheltenham: Edward Elgar), pp. 72-122.